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The EC-Council 212-82 exam is a computer-based exam that consists of 50 multiple-choice questions. The test-taker will have two hours to complete the exam, and a score of 70% or higher is required to pass. 212-82 exam is available in multiple languages and can be taken at any Pearson VUE testing center worldwide. Certified Cybersecurity Technician certification is valid for three years, and the candidate will need to renew their certification by taking a recertification exam or earning continuing education credits.
To become a certified cybersecurity technician, a candidate must pass the 212-82 exam. Certified Cybersecurity Technician certification not only validates the individual's knowledge and skills but also demonstrates their commitment to cybersecurity best practices. 212-82 exam is designed to test the candidate's ability to identify and mitigate security risks, manage vulnerabilities, and implement security controls.
NEW QUESTION # 62
Riley sent a secret message to Louis. Before sending the message, Riley digitally signed the message using his private key. Louis received the message, verified the digital signature using the corresponding key to ensure that the message was not tampered during transit.
Which of the following keys did Louis use to verify the digital signature in the above scenario?
- A. Louis's private key
- B. Riley's public key
- C. Louis's public key
- D. Riley's private key
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 63
Anderson, a security engineer, was Instructed to monitor all incoming and outgoing traffic on the organization's network to identify any suspicious traffic. For this purpose, he employed an analysis technique using which he analyzed packet header fields such as IP options, IP protocols, IP fragmentation flags, offset, and identification to check whether any fields are altered in transit.
Identify the type of attack signature analysis performed by Anderson in the above scenario.
- A. Content-based signature analysis
- B. Context-based signature analysis
- C. Composite-signature-based analysis
- D. Atomic-signature-based analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Content-based signature analysis is the type of attack signature analysis performed by Anderson in the above scenario. Content-based signature analysis is a technique that analyzes packet header fields such as IP options, IP protocols, IP fragmentation flags, offset, and identification to check whether any fields are altered in transit. Content-based signature analysis can help detect attacks that manipulate packet headers to evade detection or exploit vulnerabilities . Context-based signature analysis is a technique that analyzes packet payloads such as application data or commands to check whether they match any known attack patterns or signatures. Atomic-signature-based analysis is a technique that analyzes individual packets to check whether they match any known attack patterns or signatures. Composite-signature-based analysis is a technique that analyzes multiple packets or sessions to check whether they match any known attack patterns or signatures.
NEW QUESTION # 64
Kevin, a professional hacker, wants to penetrate CyberTech Inc.'s network. He employed a technique, using which he encoded packets with Unicode characters. The company's IDS cannot recognize the packet, but the target web server can decode them.
What is the technique used by Kevin to evade the IDS system?
- A. Urgency flag
- B. Obfuscating
- C. Session splicing
- D. Desynchronization
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 65
An FTP server has been hosted in one of the machines in the network. Using Cain and Abel the attacker was able to poison the machine and fetch the FTP credentials used by the admin. You're given a task to validate the credentials that were stolen using Cain and Abel and read the file flag.txt
- A. hat@red
- B. blue@hat
- C. white@hat
- D. red@hat
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 66
Hayes, a security professional, was tasked with the implementation of security controls for an industrial network at the Purdue level 3.5 (IDMZ). Hayes verified all the possible attack vectors on the IDMZ level and deployed a security control that fortifies the IDMZ against cyber-attacks.
Identify the security control implemented by Hayes in the above scenario.
- A. Use of authorized RTU and PLC commands
- B. Anti-DoS solution
- C. MAC authentication
- D. Point-to-po int communication
Answer: A
Explanation:
The use of authorized RTU and PLC commands is the security control implemented by Hayes in the above scenario. RTU (Remote Terminal Unit) and PLC (Programmable Logic Controller) are devices that control and monitor industrial processes, such as power generation, water treatment, oil and gas production, etc. RTU and PLC commands are instructions that are sent from a master station to a slave station to perform certain actions or request certain data. The use of authorized RTU and PLC commands is a security control that fortifies the IDMZ (Industrial Demilitarized Zone) against cyber-attacks by ensuring that only valid and authenticated commands are executed by the RTU and PLC devices. Point-to-point communication is a communication method that establishes a direct connection between two endpoints. MAC authentication is an authentication method that verifies the MAC (Media Access Control) address of a device before granting access to a network. Anti-DoS solution is a security solution that protects a network from DoS (Denial-of-Service) attacks by filtering or blocking malicious traffic.
NEW QUESTION # 67
Paul, a computer user, has shared information with his colleague using an online application. The online application used by Paul has been incorporated with the latest encryption mechanism. This mechanism encrypts data by using a sequence of photons that have a spinning trait while traveling from one end to another, and these photons keep changing their shapes during their course through filters: vertical, horizontal, forward slash, and backslash.
Identify the encryption mechanism demonstrated in the above scenario.
- A. Quantum cryptography
- B. Elliptic curve cryptography
- C. Rivest Shamir Adleman encryption
- D. Homomorphic encryption
Answer: A
Explanation:
Quantum cryptography is the encryption mechanism demonstrated in the above scenario. Quantum cryptography is a branch of cryptography that uses quantum physics to secure data transmission and communication. Quantum cryptography encrypts data by using a sequence of photons that have a spinning trait, called polarization, while traveling from one end to another. These photons keep changing their shapes, called states, during their course through filters: vertical, horizontal, forward slash, and backslash. Quantum cryptography ensures that any attempt to intercept or tamper with the data will alter the quantum states of the photons and be detected by the sender and receiver . Homomorphic encryption is a type of encryption that allows computations to be performed on encrypted data without decrypting it first. Rivest Shamir Adleman (RSA) encryption is a type of asymmetric encryption that uses two keys, public and private, to encrypt and decrypt data. Elliptic curve cryptography (ECC) is a type of asymmetric encryption that uses mathematical curves to generate keys and perform encryption and decryption.
NEW QUESTION # 68
Giovanni, a system administrator, was tasked with configuring permissions for employees working on a new project. Hit organization used active directories (ADs) to grant/deny permissions to resources Giovanni created a folder for AD users with the required permissions and added all employees working on the new project in it. Identify the type of account created by Giovanni in this scenario.
- A. Third-party account
- B. Shared account
- C. Application account
- D. Croup-based account
Answer: D
Explanation:
Group-based account is the type of account created by Giovanni in this scenario. An account is a set of credentials, such as a username and a password, that allows a user to access a system or network. An account can have different types based on its purpose or usage. A group-based account is a type of account that allows multiple users to access a system or network with the same credentials and permissions. A group-based account can be used to simplify the management of users and resources by assigning them to groups based on their roles or functions. In the scenario, Giovanni was tasked with configuring permissions for employees working on a new project. His organization used active directories (ADs) to grant/deny permissions to resources. Giovanni created a folder for AD users with the required permissions and added all employees working on the new project in it. This means that he created a group-based account for those employees. A third-party account is a type of account that allows an external entity or service to access a system or network with limited permissions or scope. A shared account is a type of account that allows multiple users to access a system or network with the same credentials but different permissions. An application account is a type of account that allows an application or software to access a system or network with specific permissions or functions.
NEW QUESTION # 69
Calvin spotted blazing flames originating from a physical file storage location in his organization because of a Short circuit. In response to the incident, he used a fire suppression system that helped curb the incident in the initial stage and prevented it from spreading over a large are a. Which of the following firefighting systems did Calvin use in this scenario?
- A. Sprinkler system
- B. Fire extinguisher
- C. Fire detection system
- D. Smoke detectors
Answer: B
Explanation:
Fire extinguisher is the firefighting system that Calvin used in this scenario. A firefighting system is a system that detects and suppresses fire in a physical location or environment. A firefighting system can consist of various components, such as sensors, alarms, sprinklers, extinguishers, etc. A firefighting system can use various agents or substances to suppress fire, such as water, foam, gas, powder, etc. A fire extinguisher is a portable device that contains an agent or substance that can be sprayed or discharged onto a fire to extinguish it . A fire extinguisher can be used to curb fire in the initial stage and prevent it from spreading over a large area . In the scenario, Calvin spotted blazing flames originating from a physical file storage location in his organization because of a short circuit. In response to the incident, he used a fire suppression system that helped curb the incident in the initial stage and prevented it from spreading over a large area. This means that he used a fire extinguisher for this purpose. A fire detection system is a system that detects the presence of fire by sensing its characteristics, such as smoke, heat, flame, etc., and alerts the occupants or authorities about it . A sprinkler system is a system that consists of pipes and sprinkler heads that release water onto a fire when activated by heat or smoke. A smoke detector is a device that senses smoke and emits an audible or visual signal to warn about fire.
NEW QUESTION # 70
Juan, a safety officer at an organization, installed a physical lock at the entrance of each floor. All employees in the organization were allotted a smart card embedded in their ID cards, which had to be swiped to unlock doors and Access any floor. Which of the following types of physical locks did Juan install In this scenario?
- A. Electromagnetic locks
- B. Digital locks
- C. Mechanical locks
- D. Combination locks
Answer: B
Explanation:
Digital locks are the types of physical locks that Juan installed in this scenario. A physical lock is a device that prevents or restricts access to a physical location or environment, such as a door, a cabinet, a drawer, etc. A physical lock can have different types based on its mechanism or technology. A digital lock is a type of physical lock that uses electronic or digital components, such as a keypad, a card reader, a fingerprint scanner, etc., to unlock or lock . A digital lock can be used to provide enhanced security and convenience to users, but it can also be vulnerable to hacking or tampering. In the scenario, Juan installed a physical lock at the entrance of each floor. All employees in the organization were allotted a smart card embedded in their ID cards, which had to be swiped to unlock doors and access any floor. This means that he installed digital locks for those doors. A mechanical lock is a type of physical lock that uses mechanical components, such as a key, a bolt, a latch, etc., to unlock or lock. A combination lock is a type of physical lock that uses a sequence of numbers or symbols, such as a dial, a wheel, or a keypad, to unlock or lock. An electromagnetic lock is a type of physical lock that uses an electromagnet and an armature plate to unlock or lock.
NEW QUESTION # 71
A software company is developing a new software product by following the best practices for secure application development. Dawson, a software analyst, is checking the performance of the application on the client's network to determine whether end users are facing any issues in accessing the application.
Which of the following tiers of a secure application development lifecycle involves checking the performance of the application?
- A. Quality assurance (QA)
- B. Testing
- C. Staging
- D. Development
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 72
Steve, a network engineer, was tasked with troubleshooting a network issue that is causing unexpected packet drops. For this purpose, he employed a network troubleshooting utility to capture the ICMP echo request packets sent to the server. He identified that certain packets are dropped at the gateway due to poor network connection.
Identify the network troubleshooting utility employed by Steve in the above scenario.
- A. dnsenurn
- B. traceroute
- C. arp
- D. ipconfig
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 73
Henry Is a cyber security specialist hired by BlackEye - Cyber security solutions. He was tasked with discovering the operating system (OS) of a host. He used the Unkornscan tool to discover the OS of the target system. As a result, he obtained a TTL value, which Indicates that the target system is running a Windows OS. Identify the TTL value Henry obtained, which indicates that the target OS is Windows.
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 74
An organization divided its IT infrastructure into multiple departments to ensure secure connections for data access. To provide high-speed data access, the administrator implemented a PAID level that broke data into sections and stored them across multiple drives. The storage capacity of this RAID level was equal to the sum of disk capacities in the set. which of the following RAID levels was implemented by the administrator in the above scenario?
- A. RAID Level 1
- B. RAID Level 5
- C. RAID Level 0
- D. RAID Level 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
RAID Level 0 is the RAID level that was implemented by the administrator in the above scenario. RAID Level 0 is also known as striping, which breaks data into sections and stores them across multiple drives. RAID Level 0 provides high-speed data access and increases performance, but it does not provide any redundancy or fault tolerance. The storage capacity of RAID Level 0 is equal to the sum of disk capacities in the set3. Reference: RAID Level 0
NEW QUESTION # 75
Ryleigh, a system administrator, was instructed to perform a full back up of organizational data on a regular basis. For this purpose, she used a backup technique on a fixed date when the employees are not accessing the system i.e., when a service-level down time is allowed a full backup is taken.
Identify the backup technique utilized by Ryleigh in the above scenario.
- A. Cold backup
- B. Warm backup
- C. Hot backup
- D. Nearline backup
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cold backup is the backup technique utilized by Ryleigh in the above scenario. Cold backup is a backup technique that involves taking a full backup of data when the system or database is offline or shut down. Cold backup ensures that the data is consistent and not corrupted by any ongoing transactions or operations. Cold backup is usually performed on a fixed date or time when the service-level downtime is allowed or scheduled . Nearline backup is a backup technique that involves storing data on a medium that is not immediately accessible, but can be retrieved within a short time. Hot backup is a backup technique that involves taking a backup of data while the system or database is online or running. Warm backup is a backup technique that involves taking a backup of data while the system or database is partially online or running.
NEW QUESTION # 76
The SOC department in a multinational organization has collected logs of a security event as
"Windows.events.evtx". Study the Audit Failure logs in the event log file located in the Documents folder of the
-Attacker Maehine-1" and determine the IP address of the attacker. (Note: The event ID of Audit failure logs is
4625.)
(Practical Question)
- A. 10.10.1.19
- B. 10.10.1.16
- C. 10.10.1.10
- D. 10.10.1.12
Answer: B
Explanation:
The IP address of the attacker is 10.10.1.16. This can be verified by analyzing the Windows.events.evtx file using a tool such as Event Viewer or Log Parser. The file contains several Audit Failure logs with event ID 4625, which indicate failed logon attempts to the system. The logs show that the source network address of the failed logon attempts is 10.10.1.16, which is the IP address of the attacker3. The screenshot below shows an example of viewing one of the logs using Event Viewer4: Reference: Audit Failure Log, [Windows.events.evtx], [Screenshot of Event Viewer showing Audit Failure log]
NEW QUESTION # 77
Miguel, a professional hacker, targeted an organization to gain illegitimate access to its critical information. He identified a flaw in the end-point communication that can disclose the target application's dat a.
Which of the following secure application design principles was not met by the application in the above scenario?
- A. Secure the weakest link
- B. Do not trust user input
- C. Fault tolerance
- D. Exception handling
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 78
Identify a machine in the network with 5SH service enabled. Initiate an SSH Connection to the machine, find the file, ttag.txt. in the machine, and enter the tile's content as the answer. The credentials tor SSH login are sam/adm(admin@123. {Practical Question)
- A. sam@bob
- B. bobt@sam
- C. bob2@sam
- D. sam2@bob
Answer: B
Explanation:
bob1@sam is the file's content as the answer. To find the machine with SSH service enabled, one can use a network scanning tool such as Nmap to scan the network for port 22, which is the default port for SSH. For example, the command nmap -p 22 192.168.0.0/24 will scan the network range 192.168.0.0/24 for port 22 and display the results2. To initiate an SSH connection to the machine, one can use a command-line tool such as ssh or an SSH client such as PuTTY to connect to the machine using the credentials sam/admin@123. For example, the command ssh [email protected] will connect to the machine with IP address 192.168.0.10 using the username sam and prompt for the password admin@1233. To find the file flag.txt in the machine, one can use a file searching tool such as find or locate to search for the file name in the machine's file system. For example, the command find / -name flag.txt will search for the file flag.txt from the root directory (/) and display its location4. To enter the file's content as the answer, one can use a file viewing tool such as cat or less to display the content of the file flag.txt. For example, the command cat /home/sam/flag.txt will display the content of the file flag.txt located in /home/sam/ directory5. The screenshot below shows an example of performing these steps: ![Screenshot of performing these steps] Reference: Nmap Tutorial, SSH Tutorial, Find Command Tutorial, Cat Command Tutorial, [Screenshot of performing these steps]
NEW QUESTION # 79
You are a penetration tester working to test the user awareness of the employees of the client xyz. You harvested two employees' emails from some public sources and are creating a client-side backdoor to send it to the employees via email. Which stage of the cyber kill chain are you at?
- A. Exploitation
- B. Reconnaissance
- C. Command and control
- D. Weaponization
Answer: D
Explanation:
Weaponization is the stage of the cyber kill chain that you are at in the above scenario. The cyber kill chain is a model that describes the phases of a cyberattack from the perspective of the attacker. The cyber kill chain consists of seven stages: reconnaissance, weaponization, delivery, exploitation, installation, command and control, and actions on objectives. Reconnaissance is the stage of the cyber kill chain that involves gathering information about the target, such as IP addresses, domain names, vulnerabilities, etc. Weaponization is the stage of the cyber kill chain that involves creating a malicious payload or tool that can exploit the target's vulnerabilities. Weaponization can include creating a client-side backdoor to send it to the employees via email. Delivery is the stage of the cyber kill chain that involves transmitting or delivering the weaponized payload or tool to the target's system or network. Exploitation is the stage of the cyber kill chain that involves executing or triggering the weaponized payload or tool on the target's system or network.
NEW QUESTION # 80
Jaden, a network administrator at an organization, used the ping command to check the status of a system connected to the organization's network. He received an ICMP error message stating that the IP header field contains invalid information. Jaden examined the ICMP packet and identified that it is an IP parameter problem.
Identify the type of ICMP error message received by Jaden in the above scenario.
- A. Type = 5
- B. Type =12
- C. Type = 3
- D. Type = 8
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 81
Kayden successfully cracked the final round of interviews at an organization. After a few days, he received his offer letter through an official company email address. The email stated that the selected candidate should respond within a specified time. Kayden accepted the opportunity and provided an e-signature on the offer letter, then replied to the same email address. The company validated the e-signature and added his details to their database. Here, Kayden could not deny the company's message, and the company could not deny Kayden's signature.
Which of the following information security elements was described in the above scenario?
- A. Confidentiality
- B. Availability
- C. Integrity
- D. Non-repudiation
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is B, as it describes the information security element that was described in the above scenario. Non-repudiation is an information security element that ensures that a party cannot deny sending or receiving a message or performing an action. In the above scenario, non-repudiation was described, as Kayden could not deny company's message, and company could not deny Kayden's signature. Option A is incorrect, as it does not describe the information security element that was described in the above scenario. Availability is an information security element that ensures that authorized users can access and use information and resources when needed. In the above scenario, availability was not described, as there was no mention of access or use of information and resources. Option C is incorrect, as it does not describe the information security element that was described in the above scenario. Integrity is an information security element that ensures that information and resources are accurate and complete and have not been modified by unauthorized parties. In the above scenario, integrity was not described, as there was no mention of accuracy or completeness of information and resources. Option D is incorrect, as it does not describe the information security element that was described in the above scenario. Confidentiality is an information security element that ensures that information and resources are protected from unauthorized access and disclosure. In the above scenario, confidentiality was not described, as there was no mention of protection or disclosure of information and resources.
NEW QUESTION # 82
Grace, an online shopping freak, has purchased a smart TV using her debit card. During online payment, Grace's browser redirected her from ecommerce website to a third-party payment gateway, where she provided her debit card details and OTP received on her registered mobile phone. After completing the transaction, Grace navigated to her online bank account and verified the current balance in her savings account.
Identify the state of data when it is being processed between the ecommerce website and the payment gateway in the above scenario.
- A. Data at rest
- B. Data in use
- C. Data in inactive
- D. Data in transit
Answer: D
Explanation:
Data in transit is the state of data when it is being processed between the ecommerce website and the payment gateway in the above scenario. Data in transit is data that is moving from one location to another over a network, such as the internet, a LAN, or a WAN. Data in transit can be vulnerable to interception, modification, or theft by unauthorized parties, so it needs to be protected by encryption, authentication, and other security measures . Data at rest is data that is stored on a device or a media, such as a hard drive, a flash drive, or a cloud storage. Data in active is data that is currently being accessed or modified by an application or a user. Data in use is data that is loaded into the memory of a device or a system for processing or computation.
NEW QUESTION # 83
Rhett, a security professional at an organization, was instructed to deploy an IDS solution on their corporate network to defend against evolving threats. For this purpose, Rhett selected an IDS solution that first creates models for possible intrusions and then compares these models with incoming events to make detection decisions.
Identify the detection method employed by the IDS solution in the above scenario.
- A. Not-use detection
- B. Signature recognition
- C. Protocol anomaly detection
- D. Anomaly detection
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 84
Johnson, an attacker, performed online research for the contact details of reputed cybersecurity firms. He found the contact number of sibertech.org and dialed the number, claiming himself to represent a technical support team from a vendor. He warned that a specific server is about to be compromised and requested sibertech.org to follow the provided instructions. Consequently, he prompted the victim to execute unusual commands and install malicious files, which were then used to collect and pass critical Information to Johnson's machine. What is the social engineering technique Steve employed in the above scenario?
- A. Elicitation
- B. Phishing
- C. Quid pro quo
- D. Diversion theft
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 85
Jordan, a network administrator in an organization, was instructed to identify network-related issues and improve network performance. While troubleshooting the network, he received a message indicating that the datagram could not be forwarded owing to the unavailability of IP-related services (such as FTP or web services) on the target host, which of the following network issues did Jordan find in this scenario?
- A. Network cable is unplugged
- B. Destination unreachable message
- C. Unreachable networks
- D. Time exceeded message
Answer: B
Explanation:
Destination unreachable message is the network issue that Jordan found in this scenario. Destination unreachable message is a type of ICMP message that indicates that the datagram could not be forwarded owing to the unavailability of IP-related services (such as FTP or web services) on the target host. Destination unreachable message can be caused by various reasons, such as incorrect routing, firewall blocking, or host configuration problems1.
NEW QUESTION # 86
The incident handling and response (IH&R) team of an organization was handling a recent cyberattack on the organization's web server. Fernando, a member of the IH&P team, was tasked with eliminating the root cause of the incident and closing all attack vectors to prevent similar incidents in future. For this purpose. Fernando applied the latest patches to the web server and installed the latest security mechanisms on it. Identify the IH&R step performed by Fernando in this scenario.
- A. Recovery
- B. Notification
- C. Containment
- D. Eradication
Answer: D
Explanation:
Eradication is the IH&R step performed by Fernando in this scenario. Eradication is a step in IH&R that involves eliminating the root cause of the incident and closing all attack vectors to prevent similar incidents in future. Eradication can include applying patches, installing security mechanisms, removing malware, restoring backups, or reformatting systems.
NEW QUESTION # 87
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ECCouncil 212-82 certification exam is an essential certification for individuals who want to demonstrate their knowledge and expertise in cybersecurity. Certified Cybersecurity Technician certification is recognized globally and is highly respected by employers, demonstrating the candidate's commitment to the field of cybersecurity. Candidates should be prepared to invest a significant amount of time and effort into preparing for the exam. 212-82 exam is challenging but rewarding, and passing the exam validates the candidate's skills and knowledge in the field of cybersecurity.
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