PRMIA 8008 exam dumps : PRM Certification - Exam III: Risk Management Frameworks, Operational Risk, Credit Risk, Counterparty Risk, Market Risk, ALM, FTP - 2015 Edition

  • Exam Code: 8008
  • Exam Name: PRM Certification - Exam III: Risk Management Frameworks, Operational Risk, Credit Risk, Counterparty Risk, Market Risk, ALM, FTP - 2015 Edition
  • Updated: Aug 29, 2026     Q & A: 359 Questions and Answers

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PRMIA 8008 Exam Syllabus Topics:

SectionObjectives
Risk Management Frameworks- Governance and Risk Culture
- Enterprise Risk Management Principles
Funds Transfer Pricing (FTP)- FTP Implementation and Governance
- FTP Framework and Methodologies
Counterparty Risk- Counterparty Exposure and Collateral Management
- Pre-Settlement and Settlement Risk
Asset-Liability Management (ALM)- Liquidity and Funding Risk Management
- Interest Rate Risk in the Banking Book
Operational Risk- Operational Risk Identification and Assessment
- Operational Risk Measurement and Controls
Market Risk- Market Risk Measurement Techniques
- Market Risk Models and VAR
Credit Risk- Credit Risk Mitigation and Management
- Credit Risk Analysis and Measurement

PRMIA PRM Certification - Exam III: Risk Management Frameworks, Operational Risk, Credit Risk, Counterparty Risk, Market Risk, ALM, FTP - 2015 Edition Sample Questions:

Question 1

Which of the following statements are correct:
I. A training set is a set of data used to create a model, while a control set is a set of data is used to prove that the model actually works II. Cleansing, aggregating or ensuring data integrity is a task for the IT department, and is not a risk manager's responsibility III. Lack of information on the quality of underlying securities and assets was a major cause of the collapse in the CDO markets during the credit crisis that started in 2007 IV. The problem of lack of historical data can be addressed reasonably satisfactorily by using analytical approaches

A. I, III and IV
B. I and III
C. All of the above
D. II and IV


Question 2

The sensitivity (delta) of a portfolio to a single point move in the value of the S&P500 is $100. If the current level of the S&P500 is 2000, and has a one day volatility of 1%, what is the value-at-risk for this portfolio at the 99% confidence and a horizon of 10 days? What is this method of calculating VaR called?

A. $4,660, Monte Carlo simulation VaR
B. $14,736, historical simulation VaR
C. $14,736, parametric VaR
D. $4,660, parametric VaR


Question 3

Ex-ante VaR estimates may differ from realized P&L due to:
I. the effect of intra day trading
II. timing differences in the accounting systems
III. incorrect estimation of VaR parameters
IV. security returns exhibiting mean reversion

A. II, III and IV
B. I, II and IV
C. I, II and III
D. I and III


Question 4

A bank holds a portfolio of corporate bonds. Corporate bond spreads widen, resulting in a loss of value for the portfolio. This loss arises due to:

A. Market risk
B. Counterparty risk
C. Credit risk
D. Liquidity risk


Question 5

Which of the following are valid approaches to leveraging external loss data for modeling operational risks:
I. Both internal and external losses can be fitted with distributions, and a weighted average approach using these distributions is relied upon for capital calculations.
II. External loss data is used to inform scenario modeling.
III. External loss data is combined with internal loss data points, and distributions fitted to the combined data set.
IV. External loss data is used to replace internal loss data points to create a higher quality data set to fit distributions.

A. I, II and III
B. I and III
C. All of the above
D. II and IV


Solutions:

Question 1
Answer: B
Question 2
Answer: C
Question 3
Answer: C
Question 4
Answer: A
Question 5
Answer: A

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